Đề thi Olympic Tiếng Anh 6

    ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6

    Năm học: 2014 - 2015

           Môn: Tiếng Anh

 

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

 

Chú ý:  - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04.   

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

 

Điểm	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:	Số phách
- Bằng số:……………..	………………………………………...	(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
- Bằng chữ:……………	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:	…………………..
………………………...	………………………………………...

 

PART ONE: LISTENING:

   Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

My Flower Garden

My (1)…………………. is Anne. 

I love (2)…………………..  I have a flower garden. 

My garden is in (3)…………………. of my house. 

My (4)…………………. has a garden, too. 

My garden has different types (5)…………………. flowers. 

I have roses in my garden.  (6)…………………. have tulips in my garden. 

I have petunias (7)…………………. my garden. 

My garden (8)…………………. different colours. 

I plant (9)…………………. flowers. 

I plant orange flowers. I plant (10)…………………. flowers. 

I plant purple flowers. I (11)…………………. care of my garden. 

I (12)…………………. my garden every day. 

I kill (13)…………………. weeds in my garden. 

I kill insects (14)…………………. eat my flowers. 

I love my (15)…………………. garden.

 

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

     16. A. accident   B. soccer  C. clinic  D. camera

17. A. thank   B. that   C. this   D. those

18. A. station              B. intersection C. question  D. invitation

 19. A. arm   B. charm   C. farm   D. warm

 20. A. languages B. dresses   C. watches   D. becomes

 

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

    21. A. classmate B. greeting  C. morning  D. afternoon

22. A. open  B. armchair  C. teacher  D. pencil

23. A. brother             B. student  C. doctor  D. arrive

 24. A. apartment B. motorbike C. telephone  D. volleyball

     25. A. stereo  B. family  C.engineer           D. difficult

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.    (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. My brother, Minh ……………….……English on Monday and Friday. 

A. not have  B. don’t have  C. isn’t have  D. doesn’t have

27. Hoang’s father gets up at 7.00 and eats ……………….……  

A. a big breakfast B. the big breakfast C. big breakfast  D. a breakfast big

28. They like ……………….……weather because they can go swimming.

A. hot   B. cold    C. windy   D. foggy

29. ……………….……fruit does Mr. Thanh produce?
          A. How much  B. How many   C. How long   D. How often

30. Hung and ……………….……would like to join the English Speaking Club.
 A. me   B. my    C. mine    D. I
31. We’re having an English examination ……………….……Friday, 11th December.
 A. at    B. in     C. to     D. on
32. They are playing table tennis now. - ……………….……you like table tennis?
 A. Have   B .Is     C. Are    D. Do

33. I hope the ……………….……can repair our car quickly.
 A. mechanic  B. architect   C. reporter   D. dentist
34. Is your school ……………….……the zoo?
 A. near to   B. in front to   C. next   D. in front of

35. My friends often go to school at ……………….……in the morning.
 A.a quarter to seven B.seven to a quarter  C. seven quarter        D. a quarter seven

 

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

36. It’s very ……………….……… in the city.                                  (noise)

37. There is a ……………….……… next to my house.                     (bake)

38. I brush my ……………….……… twice a day.                             (tooth)

39. Peter……………….……… a very big truck.     (driver)

   40. Their house is on the ……………….……… floor of the building. (five)

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

41. Our school (have) ……………….……… a small garden. There are many flowers in it.
42. What time your son (get up) ……………….……… every morning?

43. Your parents (go) ……………….……… to work every day?

44. Nam’s brother, Hung (wash) ……………….……… his face at the moment. 

45. We (not have) ……………….……… breakfast at 6.30 every morning. 

 

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. How many seasons are there in a year……………….……… your country? 

47. When you go to the market, please buy some books and pens ……………….……… me.

48. There are some trees ……………….……… my house and the lake.

49. Mrs. Nhung and her friends are listening……………….……… music at the moment.

50. What ……………….……… going going to Ha Long Bay with them this weekend? 

 

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

   I live in a house near the sea. It is ……….………(51) old house, about 100 years old and …………………(52) very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs ……………….(53) no bathroom. The bathroom is downstairs ……………….…(54) the kitchen and there is a living room where there is a lovely old fire place. There is a garden ……………….…(55) the house. The garden ……………….…(56) down to the beach and in spring and summer ……………….…(57) flowers every where. I like being alone ……………….…(58) my dog, Rack, but we have a lot of visitors. My city friends often stay with ……………….…(59)

   I love my house for ……………….…(60) reasons the garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from my bedroom window.

 

51.	A. a	B. an	C. the	D. any
52.	A. it	B. it's	C. there's	D. they're
53.	A. and	B. or	C. too	D. but
54.	A. between	B. next	C. near to	D. next to
55.	A. in front	B. front of	C. of front in	D. in front of
56.	A. go	B. goes	C. going	D. in goes
57.	A. they are	B. there are	C. these are	D. those are
58.	A. for	B. of	C. on	D. with
59.	A. my	B. I	C. me	D. I'm
60.	A. a	B. any	C. many	D. a lot

 

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

    Dear Lan Anh,

    I am visiting Ha Long Bay with my family ……………….……(61) June 12th to 20th. ……………….……(62) you have a room with a shower for these days? How ……………….……(63) is the room? We would like  ……………….……(64) room facing the sea if it is possible. We ……………….……(65) eat meat but we ……………….……(66) all other kinds of food.

  We are arriving….………….……(67) Ha Long Bay..…………….……(68) about six o’clock on Monday evening. We plan to leave the hotel ……………….……(69) Sunday morning.

  I ……………….……(70) forward to hearing from you soon.

 

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt):

His sister’s name is Thuy Anh. She is a teacher of literature. She’s thirty - five years old. She is very, very beautiful. She has an oval face and round eyes. Her lips are quite full. Mrs. Thuy Anh has long black hair and a small nose. Her favorite food is fish, and her favorite drinks are orange juice and lemon juice.

71. What does Mrs. Thuy Anh do?   -> ………………………………………………..………………………………………………

72. Are her lips thin?   -> …………………………………………………………………………

73. Does she have a round face or an oval face?   -> ………………………………………………..………………………………………………

74. What color is her hair?     -> ………………………………………………..………………………………………………

75. Does she like orange juice?   -> ………………………………………………..………………………………………………

 

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt)

	Your corrections
76. A lot of my friends play soccer, but not much of them play tennis.           A                 B                                        C                           D	76. ……………… …………………..
77. Mr. Phong rides his bike to work at the moment.       A                 B                C                         D	77………………..
78. The Browns are traveling to Ho Chi Minh City in train now.                   A                 B                                         C   D	78. ……………… …………………..
79. My brother, Quan, is twenty-one year old and he is a student.                  A                        B              C                               D	79. ……………….. ………….………..
80. There is an England examination on Friday, 11th December.          A                B                             C                D	80. …….………… ……………………

 

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. I cycle to school every day.                                    

-> I go to……………………………………………………………….…………….…………..

82. How much is your hat ?   

-> What is………………………………………………………..……………….......................?

83. My house is behind the police station.         

-> The police station is…………………………………………………………….…………….

84. What’s the height of the Mount Everest? 

-> How ………………………………………………………………………………………….?

85. My mother cooks very well.

-> My mother is……………………………………………………….…………..……..………

 

III. Write a passage (about 100 words) to tell about your family: (3,0pts)

 

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6

NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

 

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. name	2. flowers	3. front	4. neighbour	5. of
6. I	7. in	8. has	9. red	10. blue
11. take	12. water	13. the	14. that	15. beautiful

 

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

     16. A. accident    17. A. thank  18. C. question    19. D. warm    20. D. becomes

 

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

     21-D. afternoon      22-B. armchair   23-D. arrive    24-A. apartment     25-C.engineer     

 

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.    (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. D. doesn’t have	27. A. a big breakfast	28. A. hot	29. A. How much	30. D. I
31. D. on	32. D. Do	33. A. mechanic	34. D. in front of	35. A. a quarter to seven

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 36. noisy  37. bakery  38. teeth  39. drives  40. fifth

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46 - in

47 -  for

48 - between

49 - to

50 -  about

 

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51 - B. an	52 - B. it's	53 - D. but	54 - D. next to	55 - D. in front of
56 - B. goes	57 - B. there are	58 - D. with	59 - C. me	60 - C. many

 

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

61. from	62. Do	63. much	64. a	65. don’t
66. eat	67. in	68. at	69. on	70. look

 

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt):

71. She is a teacher of literature.

72. No, they aren’t.

73. She has an oval face.

74. Her hair/ It is black.

75. Yes, she does.

 

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt)

 

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. I go to school by bike every day.

82. What is the price of your hat ?

83.The police station is in front of my house.

84. How high is the Mount Everest?

85. Hoang is the strongest person in his class

 

III. Write a passage (about 80 words) tell about your family: (3,0pts)

Bài viết phải bao gồm những ý sau:

1. Tiêu đề + Mở bài: Bài viết phải có tiêu đề bài và học sinh nêu được một vài ý chung về chủ đề về gia đình. (được 0,5 điểm)

2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số vấn đề liên quan đến gia đình riêng, như: Số thành viên trong gia đình; tuổi tác, sở thích, tính cách, công việc hàng ngày chung và riêng của cả nhà và của mỗi người, … (được 2,0 điểm)

3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước.

                                        (được 0,5 điểm)