Đề thi Olympic Tiếng Anh 7

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI TRƯỜNG THCS THANH THÙY

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 Năm học: 2014 – 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh   Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý:  - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.   

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

PART ONE: LISTENING (0. 2 x 15 = 3.0 pts)

    I.   Listen to the passage and complete the missing information. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pt)

 

For good or bad, computers are now part of our daily life. Experts predict that before long all schools and businesses and most families in the rich parts of the world will (1)…………...a computer of some kind. Among the general public, computers arouse strong feelings-people either love them (2)…………………… hate them.

The computer lovers talk about how useful computers can be in business, in education and (3) …………………..the home. Apart (4) …………………… all the games, you can do your accounts on them, learn languages from them, write letters on them, and in some places even(5)……………………your shopping with them. They say that computers bring leisure, as many  (6)……………… jobs are taken over by computerized robots. The haters, on the other hand, argue that computers bring not leisure but (7)…………………... They worry, too, that people (8)…………………spend all the time talking to computers may forget (9) ………………. to talk to each other. Their  biggest fear is that computers may eventually take (10) ………………. from human beings altogether.

 

1.....................	2.....................	3.....................	4.....................	5.....................
6.....................	7.....................	8.....................	9.....................	10....................

 

  II.   Listen to the passage and complete the missing information. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

11. Four hundred years ago, some English people came to North America to live and they brought (11)............ language to this country.

   A. French  B. English                 C. Chinese D. Canadian

12. Now in the USA, people speak (12)..............English

   A. British  B. American             C. Russian D. Chinese

13. But the American say some English words not as people (13)............. in England.

  A. do  B. say                C. talk  D. speak

14. It is the larger (14)..............  the United States.

   A. than  B. as                        C. more  D. less

15. In Canada, many people speak English because they also came from England many years (15).............

  A. ago  B. later                C. there  D. here

11.....................

12.....................

13.....................

14.....................

15.....................

 

 

PART TWO: PHONETICS (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

16. A. improved   B. returned   C. arrived   D. stopped

17. A. nervous   B. scout   C. household  D. mouse

18. A. favorite   B. find   C. outside  D. library

19. A. last    B. taste   C. fast   D. task

20. A. future   B. summer   C. number   D. drummer

16.....................

17.....................

18.....................

19.....................

20.....................

 

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. prepare  B. divide  C. repair  D. beauty

22. A. careful  B. decide  C. stranslate  D. practice

23. A. paper   B. country  C. enjoy  D. singer 

24. A. happy  B. career  C. follow  D. begin

25. A. challenge  B. combine  C. magic  D. nature

21.....................

22.....................

23.....................

24.....................

25.....................

 

 

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (0.2 x 25 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

26. I don’t like durians, and ……………….……do my close classmates, Hung and Cuong.

A. neither

B. either

C. too

D. so

27. There are oranges, vegetables, bread and four large ……………….……on that table.

A. bowl of rice

B. bowls of rice

C. bowl of rices

D. bowls of rices

28. We are free now. Shall we go to our club’s party?   - ……………….……

A. Yes, I shall

B. Yes, we should

C. Yes, we go

D. Yes, let’s

29. I and my brother usually spend two hour ……………….……every evening.

A. do our homework	B. to do our homework
C. doing our homework	D. to doing our homework

30. Of the two students , he is ……………….……

A. tall

B. taller

C. the taller

D. the tallest

31. Miss Van Anh types ……………….……. She is a very……………….…… typist.

A. care/ careful

B. care/ carefully

C. carefully/ careful

D. careful/ carefully

31. It often takes me half an hour ……………….……to school every morning.

A. cycle

B. to cycle

C. cylcling

D. cycled

33. When I saw your teacher this morning, I found that he looked very ……………….……

A. happy

B. happily

C. to be happy

D. being happy

34. Mr. Truong feels sick now because he drank too……………….……wine this morning.

A. many

B. few

C. lots

D. much

35. You were absent ……………….……school this morning. What’s the trouble?

A. at

B. on

C. from

D. to

 

26.....................	27.....................	28.....................	29.....................	30.....................
31.....................	32.....................	33.....................	34.....................	35….................

 

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pts)

36. There are many badminton ………………….nowadays.       37. Ba will be a  …………………….. artist someday.                                      38. It’s very …………………of you to help me with my homework. 39. There was a wide …………………of vegetables on display. 40. Mr. Ba is the  same……………………as my father.

COMPETE                            FAME               HELP SELECT OLD

 

36.....................

37.....................

38.....................

39.....................

40....................

 

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pts)

41. Mai (not, see)…………………..the plays very often.

42. Tomorrow when he comes we (go)…………….……shopping.

43. I  (send) ……………………………. you a letter when I come to London next month.

44. Children must (take) …………………….. part in activities with others.

45. (You / come) ……………………..to Ha Noi last month?

41.....................

42.....................

43.....................

44.....................

45…..................

 

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

46. She is always worried …….............her children.         

47. Milk is good…......................…your health.

48. Most of children are scared…..........................seeing the dentist.

49. Life in the city is different…...............…. life in the country.

50. You should brush your teeth………...............meals.

46.....................

47.....................

48.....................

49.....................

50....................

 

PART FOUR: READING (0.2 x 25 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pt)

      Dear Maggie,

  I’m writing to apologize for not____(51)____sooner and to ask if you would like ____(52)____to dinner next Saturday. As you know, we ____(53)____into our new house next week. ____(54)____we think we would ____(55)____to have a small house-warming party.

  I enclose here a little map of the area____(56)____you. As you can see, our house is very ____(57)____the  station. When you come ____(58)____the station, turn right, and right again. ____(59)____the first turning on your left. That will be Cypress Avenue. Our house is nearly at the end of the road, just besides the new____(60)____

  I hope you will come. You have already known all other guests; so it should be a lovely evening!

 Looking forward to hearing all your news!  

51. A. write  B. writing C. to write D. writes

52. A. to come B. coming C. come D. for coming

53. A. going to move B. moving C. are moving D. to move

54. A. but B. for C. why D. so

55. A. liking B. to like C. like D. be like

56. A. to help B. help C. helping D. for help

57. A. next B. opposite C. besides D. near

58. A. out B. out of C. of D. of out

59. A. Take B. Come C. Walk D. Go

60. A. blocks B. flats C. block of flats D. flats of block

51.....................	52.....................	53.....................	54.....................	55.....................
56.....................	57.....................	58.....................	59.....................	60....................

 

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0,2x 10 = 2.0 pts)

Dear Mary,

Thanks (61)………………. your letter. I am very glad (62)..…………….hear that you are fine. I am fine, (63)…………………. It’s really interesting to know about vacations of American students.

You are right. We have fewer vacations (64)………………. American students. Each year, we just have about (65)…………………….vacations. We have a day off for Independent Day on September 2nd, two days off on April 30th and May Day. Our most important vacation is Tet. Tet holiday often lasts for nine or ten (66)……………………. Our longest vacation is (67)…………………. vacation. It lasts for almost (68)………………… months. We usually spend time (69)…………………. our families. We don’t have (70)…………………… for Easter, Thanksgiving and Christmas, but we also celebrate them.

Please write and tell me your last summer vacation.

         Your friend,  

            Nam

61.....................	62.....................	63.....................	64.....................	65.....................
66.....................	67.....................	68.....................	69.....................	70….................

 

III. Read the passage and answer the questions. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

Dear Mom,

I received your letter two days ago. I am very happy to hear Dad and Mom are well, too. Four days ago, I had a slight cold. I felt very unpleasant, so I went to a doctor that evening. The doctor gave me some medicines to relieve the symptoms of the cold. Now, I feel better. Yesterday, I had a medical check-up. The doctor weighed me, measured my height, took my temperature, listened to my heart and checked my eyes and ears. Everything was normal. Last year, I weighed 42 kilos and my height was one meter 30 centimeters. Now I am one meter and 45 centimeters tall. My weight is 40 kilos. I am losing two kilos. But don’t worry about me, Mom. I know how to take care of myself.

The recess is over now. I must stop writing here. I miss Mom and dad so much, and I miss grandfather, too. Please send my regards to everybody.

Take care, Mom. Write again soon.

Love,

Na.

 

71.Why did she go to the doctor?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

72. What did the doctor do?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

73. What did she have yesterday?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

74. What was her weight last year?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

75. Is she gaining or losing weight?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……

 

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Each sentence has one mistake, find out and correct it. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)

76. There are much students in our school than in their school.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

77. How much hours does Lan’s father work  a week?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

78. Winter is the colder season in the year.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

79. Are there a pictures on the wall?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

80. Nam received a letter of his pen pal 3 days ago.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

 

II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pt)

81. The children should not stay up late.

The children ought …………………………………………………………………….

82. Remember to write me a letter as soon as you arrive.

Don’t …………………………………………………………………………

83. When my mother was ill, I looked after her.

I took ………………………………………………………………………

84. No one in Ba’s class is taller than him.

Ba is ……………………………………………………………………………

85. I always go to bed before 10 p.m.

I never ………………………………………………………………………………

 

III. In about 150 words write about the person you like most (3.0 pts)

           ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

            DUYỆT CỦA TỔ CHUYÊN MÔN                                   DUYỆT CỦA BAN GIÁM HIỆU

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7

NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE:  LISTENING (0,2 x 15 =3.0 pts)

      I. Listen to the passage and complete the missing information.

 

1. own	2. or	3. in	4. from	5. do
6. unpleasant	7. unemployment	8. who	9. how	10. over

 

     II.   Listen to the passage and complete the missing information.

In the United States of America, the national language is also English. Four hundred years ago, some English people came to North America to live and they brought English language to this country.

Now in the USA, people speak American English . Most of the words are the same in American and Bristish English, but the American say some English words not as people speak in England. Canada is situated to the North of the United States of America. It is the larger than  the United States. In Canada, many people speak English because they also came from England many years ago But in some parts of Canada, people speak French because they came from France.

11. B

12. B

13. D

14. A

15. A

 

PART TWO: PHONETICS (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

16. D

17. A

18. A

19. B

20. A

 

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

21.D

22. A

23.C

24.A

25.B

 

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (0.2 x 25 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

26. A	27. B	28. D	29. C	30.B
31. C	32. B	33.A	34. D	35. C

 

II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pts)

36.competitions

37. famous

38. helpful

39. selection

40. age

 

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pts)

41. doesn’t see

42. will go

43. will send

44. take

45. Did …..come

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

46. about

47. for

48. of

49. from

50. after

 

PART FOUR: READING (0.2 x 25 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pt)

51.B	52.A	52.C	54.D	55.C
56.A	57.D	58.B	59.A	60.C

 

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0,2x 10 = 2.0 pts)

61. for	62. to	63. too	64. than	65. four
66. days	67. summer	68. three	69. with	70. vacations

 

III. Read the passage and answer the questions. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

71. She went to the doctor because she had a slight cold and she feft very unpleasant.

72. The doctor gave me some medicines to relieve the symptoms of the cold

73. She had a medical check-up yesterday.

74. Her weight was one meter 30 centimeters last year.

75. She is losing weight.

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Each sentence has one mistake, find out and correct it. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)

76. much                              more

77. much                              many

78. colder                             coldest

79. a                                     any

80.  of                                  from

II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

81. The children ought not to stay up late.

82. Don’t forget to write me a letter as soon as you arrive.

83. I took care of my mother when she was ill.

84. Ba is the tallest ( one) in his class.

85. I never go to bed after 10 p.m.

III. In about 150 words  write about the person you like most (3.0 pts)

The essay must have at least three ideas below.

1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 0,5 điểm)

2. Thân bài: Miêu tả được ngoại hình và tính cách của người được miêu tả

(được 2,0 điểm)

3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, nói lên tình cảm của bản thân với người đó.

(được 0,5 điểm)

          DUYỆT CỦA TỔ CHUYÊN MÔN                                   DUYỆT CỦA BAN GIÁM HIỆU